Sunday, October 25, 2015
Question from Candace - Wives cooperations with annulments
For an annulment to be finalized, at least according to Henry VIII's logic, did the woman simply have to be notified of it, or did she have to agree to it as well? I am asking because of the theory that Anne Boleyn was granted a cleaner, more merciful end at the hands of a French executioner in exchange for her cooperation in annulling the marriage two days before her execution. This suggests that she had the power to veto it and that, even as a condemned prisoner, would have been able to refuse to agree to it and leave the marriage valid and Elizabeth legitimate in the eyes of God. But Henry was able to declare his marriage to Katherine of Aragon invalid even though she refused to accept the annulment for the rest of her life, so why would he need Anne to agree to it? Of course, this is all based on an unconfirmed theory, so I could be speculating needlessly, but I would like to hear anyone else's thoughts on the matter.